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mikeshulman avatar mikeshulman commented on August 15, 2024

It was also mentioned last week that wherever we define the integers, we
should deduce that they have the inductive property which is used in ch.7.
On Mar 25, 2013 4:04 PM, "Daniel R. Grayson" [email protected]
wrote:

In the computation of pi_1 S^1 it seems the integers are defined as an
inductive type, instead of as a quotient. If the definition of Z as a
quotient in chapter 10 gets moved to an earlier point, as was agreed, then
that should be the definition referred to.

I'm referring to this sentence in homotopy.tex: The proof is by induction,
with cases for $0$,$1$,$-1$,$n+1$, and $n-1$.


Reply to this email directly or view it on GitHubhttps://github.com//issues/23
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andrejbauer avatar andrejbauer commented on August 15, 2024

I am assigning myself.

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