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fenglinglwb avatar fenglinglwb commented on July 23, 2024 1

From my understanding, it should be $\frac{1-{\rm cos}(\pi \cdot {\rm clamp}(m(k-N_{beg})/N_{step}-j, 0, 1))}{2}$

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ken-ouyang avatar ken-ouyang commented on July 23, 2024

Thanks for pointing out the mistakes. We will update the paper. The formula stated by @fenglinglwb is correct.

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JiaHeng-DLUT avatar JiaHeng-DLUT commented on July 23, 2024

What does j mean? And where is l?

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qiuyu96 avatar qiuyu96 commented on July 23, 2024

What does j mean? And where is l?

Sorry for the mistake in the paper, it should be the $j^{th}$ layer.

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